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I didn't consider it rude. Sorry if I made you think that. I am sorry to hear about your miscarriage. My SIL had a miscarriage with her first and has since had a DD and is now pregnant with twins, the second two pregnancies were conceived using clomid. She had problems with the second and now third pregnancies but it is due to an incompetent cervix, not the clomid. I was jsut saying that I doubt that the studies could differentiate between the problems already present and any s/e of the clomid. And I am saying that due to the fact that few (if any) doctors would prescribe clomid simply because a woman desires it. Does that make more sense? Sorry if I garbled the meaning in the last message.

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