I have heard others on this board say it is possible...Then I saw this site, which looks like a credible source. Any opinon out there ?
This source looks more credible to me, especially if you explore some of the reference links as well ... http://bmj.bmjjournals.com/cgi/content/full/321/7271/1259? . Remember that pregnancy from s_x during the period can result if ovulation occurs within the next 5 days.
thanks, I was trying to follow up on a poster who had s_x with a woman 2-3 days before her period and then was concerned about her being pregnant. I know you answered that question. But if I look at your link, it certainly seems plausible. Thanks again for the link. Do you agree?
The link is to a professional research doc_ment with all sorts of references. The main place you can go astray is by drawing you own unwarranted conclusions. I still have not resolved in my mind whether it is true that because some of the test subjects were several standard deviations away from the mean, does that imply that all test subjects may at some time be that far away? In other words, are some women a lot more predictable than others.
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